# A Binomial Problem

Six Sigma – iSixSigma › Forums › General Forums › General › A Binomial Problem

- This topic has 6 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 2 years, 2 months ago by Rahul.

- AuthorPosts
- May 21, 2015 at 8:15 am #55033
Can someone help to solve and explain how to solve this question

A sampling plan involves selecting a sample of 50 from a very large lot, and rejecting the lot if 2 or more defects are found. If an incoming lot is 10% defective, what is the probability of rejecting the lot?

A 0.6335

B 0.9987

C 0.5443

D 0.96620May 22, 2015 at 12:10 am #198288

Amit Kumar OjhaParticipant@AmitOjha**Include @AmitOjha in your post and this person will**

be notified via email.Hi,

The correct answer is D(0.9662)

Here is the solution….

First of all consider this as a problem of Binomial Distribution. Our objective is to find the probability of getting 2 or more defects (thats when the lot will be rejected).

Technically we can write it as P(X>=2)

It is given in the problem that X is no. of defects, n=50, p=0.1, q=0.9**P(X>=2) => 1- [P(X=0) + P(X=1)]****P(X=0) => 50C0*(0.1^0)*(0.9^50) = 0.00515**

P(X=1) => 50C1*(0.1^1)*(0.9^49) = 0.02863**Hence P(X>=2) => 1 – (0.00515 + 0.02863)**

=> 0.966214**Hence Option D is correct Answer**Please let me know if you need any further clarification on this or any other such calculations.

Good Luck!!!!

0May 23, 2015 at 5:47 am #198293

Norbert FeherParticipant@Nfeher**Include @Nfeher in your post and this person will**

be notified via email.Or in minitab:

1. Go to Graph/Probability distribution Plot!

2. Select view probability

3. Select Binomial distribution!

Number of trials:50

Probability:0,1

4. Select the shaded area tab

5. Select X value instead of probability

Right tail

X value:2Result graph: shows a red shaded area of 0,9662

So the previous answer was right :-)

0May 23, 2015 at 10:03 am #198302

Amit Kumar OjhaParticipant@AmitOjha**Include @AmitOjha in your post and this person will**

be notified via email.Norbert shared a very simple way by which you can get the answer without getting into complexity of calculating the probabilities.

In the above problem, since the calculations were not so tedious, hence you can do either way. However, in many real life scenarios the calculations are too complicated to be done manually.

Hence it is good to use minitab, the way Norbert explained.

Thanks Norbert :-))

0May 26, 2015 at 8:05 am #198313Hi,

Thank you all for helping me solve the problem. Amit Kumar Your explanation is very easy to understand. This problem is from a CQE practice exam.

I want to post the exam writer’s answer to this question. I had a hard time to understand his explanation although the answer is D.

“Since the probability of success (a defect) is constant on each trial, the binomial distribution can be used to compute this probability. The probability of no successes in 50 trials, with the probability of success on a single trial of 0.1 is 0.0052. The probability of 1 success in 50 trials, with the probability of success on a single trial of 0.1 is 0.0286. The probability of 2 or more defects is 1-0.0052-0.0286=0.9662.”

does the no successes means 0 defect?

and 1 success means exactly 1 defect?what does the success on a single trial of 0.1 means?

0May 27, 2015 at 11:15 pm #198331

Amit Kumar OjhaParticipant@AmitOjha**Include @AmitOjha in your post and this person will**

be notified via email.Yes Tracy.

You are right. No success in this case means 0 defects and 1 success implies 1 defect.

Success on single trial of 0.1 means that if you test a sample of 100 units what is the probability of getting 10 defects.Hope I clarified your doubt :-))

Best of Luck!!!

0June 4, 2018 at 10:21 am #202623Why are you using Binomial instead of Poisson?

0 - AuthorPosts

You must be logged in to reply to this topic.