# Equivalence testing with ANOVA

Six Sigma – iSixSigma Forums Old Forums General Equivalence testing with ANOVA

Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
• Author
Posts
• #51960

lin
Participant

I’m pretty well versed in doing 2 one-sided testing for equivalence, but I’m having trouble translating this to multiple samples using ANOVA.  I have Wellek’s text “Testing Statistical Hypothesis of Equivalence”, but I can’t decipher his explanation for multiple samples in ch.7.  Any of you dark-siders out there able to help with this?

0
#182082

Robert Butler
Participant

I don’t know the text and the tech library I use doesn’t have a copy so I’m guessing that what you are referring to is the issue of multiple pairwise comparisons.  If this guess is correct then my next guess would be that you are trying to understand the need for corrections such as Tukey-Kramer or Bonferroni.
Since we are now possibly two guesses removed from reality and the question you really want to answer could you provide some more details concerning what you are trying to do and perhaps a thumbnail summary of what  you think the book is trying to say?

0
#182086

lin
Participant

Robert,
Thanks for the reply.  WHat I’m specifically trying to do is use a simple one-way ANOVA to show equivalence.  It’s relatively easy to choose the “zone of indeifference” in a 2 sample equivalence test, since this is a pretty intuitive thing.  For example, if I want to prove equivalence between the strength of two different materials, I would say “if the sample averages are within 10% of each other, this is equivalent for my purposes”.  Then I would do two one-sided tests to confirm that the lower and upper confidence limits are contained within the +/- 10% zone.
THe problem with doing this with ANOVA is that the “zone of indifference” is no longer expressed in the original units of measurement, but in the ratio of the variances (F-score).  I just can’t seem to make the logical leap that makes this intuitve.  For example, I could say “the zone of indifference (equivalence of multiple samples) is when the F-score is less than 2”.  This would be a hard limit that you could then select appropriate sample sizes to achieve, then test against.  But expressing equivalence in terms of an F-score is just not intuitive – to me at least.
Clear as mud?

0
#182088

Gary Cone
Participant

I also do not have the book you reference, but this is simply a sample
size question. Your simple example implies a sample to give your +/-
10% with some degree of confidence. Multiple samples will do the
same thing – figure out your zone of indifference (how big does the
difference need to be before I care), figure out the level of confidence
you require and get a sample size. Once you know that, you will know
the degrees of freedom associated with the levels and the error. That

0
#182156

Fontanilla
Participant

Sounds as though you are trying to answer a textbook question.  Is that the case?  Or, is this a real-world problem?

0
#182178

lin
Participant

No, not a book question.  I’m trying to apply this as a way to compare destructive testing methods at different manufacturing sites.  I have multiple moisture analyzers that I need to compare.

0
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)

The forum ‘General’ is closed to new topics and replies.